Revenue Reconciliation Act p8

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Revenue Reconciliation Act page8

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Clarification of limitation on maximum number of shareholders (sec. 1051 of the bill and secs. 856(k), 857(a), and 857(f) of the Code)



The bill replaces the rule that disqualifies a REIT for any year in which the REIT failed to comply with Treasury regulations to ascertain its ownership, with an intermediate penalty for failing to do so. The penalty would be $25,000 ($50,000 for intentional violations) for any year in which the REIT did not comply with the ownership regulations. The REIT also is required, when requested by the IRS, to send curative demand letters.

In addition, a REIT that complied with the Treasury regulations for ascertaining its ownership, and which did not know, or have reason to know, that it was so closely held as to be classified as a personal holding company, is treated as meeting the requirement that it not be a personal holding company.


De minimis rule for tenant service income (sec. 1052 of the bill and sec. 856(d) of the Code)



The bill permits a REIT to render a de minimis amount of impermissible services to tenants, or in connection with the management of property, and still treat amounts received with respect to that property as rent. The value of the impermissible services may not exceed one percent of the gross income from the property. For these purposes, the services may not be valued at less than 150 percent of the REIT's direct cost of the services.


Attribution rules applicable to tenant ownership (sec. 1053 of the bill and sec, 856(d)(5) of the Code)



The bill modifies the application of section 318(a)(3)(A) (attribution to partnerships) for purposes of defining rent in section 856(d)(2), so that attribution occurs only when a partner owns a 25 percent or greater interest in the partnership.


Credit for tax paid by REIT on retained capital gains (sec. 1054 of the bill and sec. 857(b)(3) of the Code)



The bill permits a REIT to elect to retain and pay income tax on net long-term capital gains it received during the tax year, just as a RIC is permitted under present law. Thus, if a REIT made this election, the REIT shareholders would include in their income as long-term capital gains their proportionate share of the undistributed long-term capital gains as designated by the REIT. The shareholder would be deemed to have paid the shareholder's share of the tax, which would be credited or refunded to the shareholder. Also, the basis of the shareholder's shares would be increased by the amount of the undistributed long-term capital gains (less the amount of capital gains tax paid by the REIT) included in the shareholder's long-term capital gains.


Repeal of 30-percent gross income requirement (sec. 1055 of the bill and sec. 856(c) of the Code



The bill repeals the rule that requires less than 30 percent of a REIT's gross income be derived from gain from the sale or other disposition of stock or securities held for less than one year, certain real property held less than four years, and property that is sold or disposed of in a prohibited transaction.


Modification of earnings and profits for determining whether REIT has earnings and profits from non-REIT year (sec. 1056 of the bill and sec. 857(d) of the Code



The bill changes the ordering rule for purposes of the requirement that newly-electing REITs distribute earnings and profits that were accumulated in non-REIT years. Under the bill, distributions of accumulated earnings and profits generally are treated as made from the entity's earliest accumulated earnings and profits, rather than the most recently accumulated earnings and profits. These distributions are not treated as distributions for purposes of calculating the dividends paid deduction. Treatment of foreclosure property (sec. 1057 of the bill and sec. 856(e) of the Code

The bill lengthens the original grace period for foreclosure property until the last day of the third full taxable year following the election. The grace period also could be extended for an additional three years by filing a request to the IRS. Under the bill, a REIT could revoke an election to treat property as foreclosure property for any taxable year by filing a revocation on or before its due date for filing its tax return.

In addition, the bill conforms the definition of independent contractor for purposes of the foreclosure property rule (sec. 856(e)(4)(C)) to the definition of independent contractor for purposes of the general rules (sec. 856(d)(2)(C)).


Payments under hedging instruments (sec. 1058 of the bill and sec. 856(c)(5)(G) of the Code



The bill treats income from all hedges that reduce the interest rate risk of REIT liabilities, not just from interest rate swaps and caps, as qualifying income under the 95-percent test. Thus, payments to a REIT under an interest rate swap, cap agreement, option, futures contract, forward rate agreement or any similar financial instrument entered into by the REIT to hedge its indebtedness incurred or to be incurred (and any gain from the sale or other disposition of these instruments) are treated as qualifying income for purposes of the 95-percent test.


Excess noncash income (sec. 1059 of the bill and sec. 857(e)(2) of the Code



The bill (1) expands the class of excess noncash items that are not subject to the distribution requirement to include income from the cancellation of indebtedness and (2) extends the treatment of original issue discount and coupon interest as excess noncash items to REITs that use an accrual method of taxation.


Prohibited transaction safe harbor (sec. 1060 of the bill and sec. 856(b)(6)(C) of the Code)



The bill excludes from the prohibited sales rules property that was involuntarily converted.


Shared appreciation mortgages (sec. 10-61 of the bill and sec. 856(j) of the Code)



The bill provides that interest received on a shared appreciation mortgage is not subject to the tax on prohibited transactions where the property subject to the mortgage is sold within 4 years of the REIT's acquisition of the mortgage pursuant to a bankruptcy plan of the mortgagor unless the REIT acquired the mortgage knew or had reason to know that the property subject to the mortgage would be sold in a bankruptcy proceeding.


Wholly-owned REIT subsidiaries (sec. 1062 of the bill and sec. 856(i)(2)of the Code)



The bill permits any corporation wholly-owned by a REIT to be treated as a qualified subsidiary, regardless of whether the corporation had always been owned by the REIT. Where the REIT acquired an existing corporation, the bill treats any such corporation as being liquidated as of the time of acquisition by the REIT and then reincorporated (thus, any of the subsidiary's pre-REIT built-in gain would be subject to tax under the normal rules of section 337). In addition, any pre-REIT earnings and profits of the subsidiary must be distributed before the end of the REIT's taxable year.


Effective Date



The bill is effective for taxable years beginning after the date of enactment.


E. Repeal of the 30-percent ("Short-short") Test for Regulated Investment Companies (sec. 1071 of the Bill and sec. 851(b)(3) of the Code)




Present Law



To qualify as a Regulated Investment Company (RIC), a company must derive less than 30 percent of its gross income from the sale or other disposition of stock or securities held for less than 3 months (the "30-percent test" or "short-short rule").


Reasons for Change



The short-short rule restricts the investment flexibility of RICs. The rule can, for example, limit a RIC's ability to "hedge" its investments (e.g., to use options to protect against adverse market moves).

The rule also burdens a RIC with significant recordkeeping, compliance, and administration costs. The RIC must keep track of the holding periods of assets and the relative percentages of short-term gain that it realizes throughout the year. The committee believes that the short-short test places unnecessary limitations upon a RIC's activities.


Explanation of Provision



The 30-percent test (or short-short rule) is repealed.


Effective Date



The provision is effective for taxable years beginning after the December 31, 1997.


F. Taxpayer Protections




1. Provide reasonable cause exception for additional penalties (sec. 1081 of the bill and secs. 6652, 6683, 7519 of the Code)




Present Law



Many penalties in the Code may be waived if the taxpayer establishes reasonable cause. For example, the accuracy-related penalty (sec. 6662) may be waived with respect to any item if the taxpayer establishes reasonable cause for his treatment of the item and that he acted in good faith (sec. 6664(c)).


Reasons for Change



The Committee believes that it is appropriate to provide a reasonable cause exception for several additional penalties where one does not currently exist.


Explanation of Provision



The bill provides that the following penalties may be waived if the failure is shown to be due to reasonable cause and not willful neglect:

(1) the penalty for failure to make a report in connection with deductible employee contributions to a retirement savings plan (sec. 6652(g));

(2) the penalty for failure to make a report as to certain small business stock (sec. 6652(k));

(3) the penalty for failure of a foreign corporation to file a return of personal holding company tax (sec. 6683); and

(4) the penalty for failure to make required payments for entities electing not to have the required taxable year (sec. 7519).


Effective Date



The provision is effective for taxable years beginning after the date of enactment.


2. Clarification of period for filing claims for refunds (sec. 1082 of the bill and sec. 6512 of the Code)




Present Law



The Code contains a series of limitations on tax refunds. Section 6511 of the Code provides both a limitation on the time period in which a claim for refund can be made (section 6511(a)) and a limitation on the amount that can be allowed as a refund (section 6511(b)). Section 6511(a) provides the general rule that a claim for refund must be filed within 3 years of the date of the return or 2 years of the date of payment of the taxes at issue, whichever is later. Section 6511(b) limits the refund amount that can be covered: if a return was filed, a taxpayer can recover amounts paid within 2 years before the claim. Section 6512(b)(3) incorporates these rules where taxpayers who challenge deficiency notices in Tax Court are found to be entitled to refunds.

In Commissioner v. Lundy, 116 S. Ct. 647 (1996), the taxpayer had not filed a return, but received a notice of deficiency within 3 years after the date the return was due and challenged the proposed deficiency in Tax Court. The Supreme Court held that the taxpayer could not recover overpayments attributable to withholding during the tax year, because no return was filed and the 2-year "look back" rule applied. Since overwithheld amounts are deemed paid as of the date the taxpayer's return was first due (i.e., more than 2 years before the notice of deficiency was issued), such overpayments could not be recovered. By contrast, if the same taxpayer had filed a return on the date the notice of deficiency was issued, and then claimed a refund, the 3-year "look back" rule would apply, and the taxpayer could have obtained a refund of the overwithheld amounts.


Reasons for Change



The Committee believes that it is appropriate to eliminate this disparate treatment.


Explanation of Provision



The bill permits taxpayers who initially fail to file a return, but who receive a notice of deficiency and file suit to contest it in Tax Court during the third year after the return due date, to obtain a refund of excessive amounts paid within the 3-year period prior to the date of the deficiency notice.


Effective Date



The provision applies to claims for refund with respect to tax years ending after the date of enactment.


3. Repeal of authority to disclose whether a prospective juror has been audited (sec. 1083 of the bill and sec. 6103 of the Code)




Present Law



In connection with a civil or criminal tax proceeding to which the United States is a party, the Secretary must disclose, upon the written request of either party to the lawsuit, whether an individual who is a prospective juror has or has not been the subject of an audit or other tax investigation by the Internal Revenue Service (sec. 6103(h)(5)).


Reasons for Change



This disclosure requirement, as it has been interpreted by several recent court decisions, has created significant difficulties in the civil and criminal tax litigation process. First, the litigation process can be substantially slowed. It can take the Secretary a considerable period of time to compile the information necessary for a response (some courts have required searches going back as far as 25 years). Second, providing early release of the list of potential jurors to defendants (which several recent court decisions have required, to permit defendants to obtain disclosure of the information from the Secretary) can provide an opportunity for harassment and intimidation of potential jurors in organized crime, drug, and some tax protester cases. Third, significant judicial resources have been expended in interpreting this procedural requirement that might better be spent resolving substantive disputes. Fourth, differing judicial interpretations of this provision have caused confusion. In some instances, defendants convicted of criminal tax offenses have obtained reversals of those convictions because of failures to comply fully with this provision.


Explanation of Provision



The bill repeals the requirement that the Secretary disclose, upon the written request of either party to the lawsuit, whether an individual who is a prospective juror has or has not been the subject of an audit or other tax investigation by the Internal Revenue Service.


Effective Date



The provision is effective for judicial proceedings commenced after the date of enactment.


4. Clarify statute of limitations for items from pass-through entities (sec. 1084 of the bill and sec. 6501 of the Code)




Present Law



Pass through entities (such as S corporations, partnerships, and certain trusts) generally are not subject to income tax on their taxable income. Instead, these entities file information returns and the entities' shareholders (or beneficial owners) report their pro rata share of the gross income and are liable for any taxes due.

Some believe that, prior to 1993, it may have been unclear as to whether the statute of limitations for adjustments that arise from distributions from passthrough entities should be applied at the entity or individual level (i.e., whether the 3-year statute of limitations for assessments runs from the time that the entity files its information return or from the time that a shareholder timely files his or her income tax return). In 1993, the Supreme Court held that the limitations period for assessing the income tax liability of an S corporation shareholder runs from the date the shareholder's return is filed (Bufferd v. Comm., 113 S. Ct. 927 (1993)).


Reasons for Change



Uncertainty regarding the correct statute of limitations hinders the resolution of factual and legal issues and creates needless litigation over collateral matters.


Explanation of Provision



The bill clarifies that the return that starts the running of the statute of limitations for a taxpayer is the return of the taxpayer and not the return of another person from whom the taxpayer has received an item of income, gain, loss, deduction, or credit.


Effective Date



The provision is effective for taxable years beginning after the date of enactment.


5. Prohibition on browsing (secs. 1084 and 1085 of the bill and secs. 7213A and 7431 of the Code)




Present Law



The Internal Revenue Code prohibits disclosure of tax returns and return information, except to the extent specifically authorized by the Internal Revenue Code (sec. 6103). Unauthorized willful disclosure is a felony punishable by a fine not exceeding $5,000 or imprisonment of not more than five years, or both (sec. 7213). An action for civil damages also may be brought for unauthorized disclosure (sec. 7431).

There is no explicit criminal penalty in the Internal Revenue Code for unauthorized inspection (absent subsequent disclosure) of tax returns and return information. Such inspection is, however, explicitly prohibited by the Internal Revenue Service ("IRS").140 In a recent case, an individual was convicted of violating the Federal wire fraud statute (18 U.S.C. 1343 and 1346) and a Federal computer fraud statute (18 U.S.C. 1030) for unauthorized inspection. However, the U.S. First Circuit Court of Appeals overturned this conviction.141 Unauthorized inspection of information of any department or agency of the United States (including the IRS) via computer was made a crime under 18 U.S.C. 1030 by the Economic Espionage Act of 1996.142 This provision does not apply to unauthorized inspection of paper documents.


Reasons for Change



The Committee believes that it is important to have a criminal penalty in the Internal Revenue Code to punish this type of behavior. The Committee also believes that it is appropriate to provide for civil damages for unauthorized inspection parallel to civil damages for unauthorized disclosure.


Explanation of Provisions




Criminal penalties



The bill creates a new criminal penalty in the Internal Revenue Code. The penalty is imposed for willful inspection (except as authorized by the Code) of any tax return or return information by any Federal employee or IRS contractor. The penalty also applies to willful inspection (except as authorized) by any State employee or other person who acquired the tax return or return information under specific provisions of section 6103. Upon conviction, the penalty is a fine in any amount not exceeding $1,000,143 or imprisonment of not more than 1 year, or both, together with the costs of prosecution. In addition, upon conviction, an officer or employee of the United States would be dismissed from office or discharged from employment.

The Congress views any unauthorized inspection of tax returns or return information as a very serious offense; this new criminal penalty reflects that view. The Congress also believes that unauthorized inspection warrants very serious personnel sanctions against IRS employees who engage in unauthorized inspection, and that it is appropriate to fire employees who do this.


Civil damages



The bill amends the provision providing for civil damages for unauthorized disclosure by also providing for civil damages for unauthorized inspection. Damages are available for unauthorized inspection that occurs either knowingly or by reason of negligence. Accidental or inadvertent inspection that may occur (such as, for example, by making an error in typing in a TIN) would not be subject to damages because it would not meet this standard. The bill also provides that no damages are available to a taxpayer if that taxpayer requested the inspection or disclosure.

The bill also requires that, if any person is criminally charged by indictment or information with inspection or disclosure of a taxpayer's return or return information in violation of section 7213(a) or (b), section 7213A (as added by the bill), or 18 USC section 1030(a)(2)(B), the Secretary notify that taxpayer as soon as practicable of the inspection or disclosure.


Effective Date



The bill is effective for violations occurring on or after the date of enactment.


TITLE XI. ESTATE, GIFT, AND TRUST TAX SIMPLIFICATION




1. Eliminate gift tax filing requirements for gifts to charities (sec. 1101 of the bill and sec. 6019 of the Code)




Present Law



A gift tax generally is imposed on lifetime transfers of property by gift (sec. 2501). In computing the amount of taxable gifts made during a calendar year, a taxpayer generally may deduct the amount of any gifts made to a charity (sec. 2522). Generally, this charitable gift deduction is available for outright gifts to charity, as well as gifts of certain partial interests in property (such as a remainder interest). A gift of a partial interest in property must be in a prescribed form in order to qualify for the deduction.

Individuals who make gifts in excess of $10,000 to any one donee during the calendar year generally are required to file a gift tax return (sec. 6019). This filing requirement applies to all gifts, whether charitable or noncharitable, and whether or not the gift qualifies for a gift tax charitable deduction. Thus, under current law, a gift tax return is required to be filed for gifts to charity in excess of $10,000, even though no gift tax is payable on the transfer.


Reasons for Change



Because a charitable gift does not give rise to a gift tax liability, many donors are unaware of the requirement to file a gift tax return for charitable gifts in excess of $10,000. Failure to file a gift tax return under these circumstances could expose the donor to penalties. The bill eliminates this potential trap for the unwary.


Explanation of Provision



The bill provides that gifts to charity are not subject to the gift tax filing requirements of section 6019, as long as the entire value of the transferred property qualifies for the gift tax charitable deduction under section 2522. The filing requirements for gifts of partial interests in property remain unchanged.


Effective Date



The provision is effective for gifts made after the date of enactment.


2. Clarification of waiver of certain rights of recovery (sec. 1102 of the bill and secs. 2207A and 2207B of the Code)




Present Law



For estate and gift tax purposes, a marital deduction is allowed for qualified terminable interest property (QTIP). Such property generally is included in the surviving spouse's gross estate upon his or her death. The surviving spouse's estate is entitled to recover the portion of the estate tax attributable to inclusion of QTIP from the person receiving the property, unless the spouse directs otherwise by will (sec. 2207A). For this purpose, a will provision specifying that all taxes shall be paid by the estate is sufficient to waive the right of recovery.

A decedent's gross estate includes the value of previously transferred property in which the decedent retains enjoyment or the right to income (sec. 2036). The estate is entitled to recover from the person receiving the property a portion of the estate tax attributable to the inclusion (sec. 2207B). This right may be waived only by a provision in the will (or revocable trust) specifically referring to section 2207B.


Reasons for Change



It is understood that persons utilizing standard testamentary language often inadvertently waive the right of recovery with respect to QTIP. Similarly, persons waiving a right to contribution are unlikely to refer to the code section granting the right. Accordingly, allowing the right of recovery (or right of contribution) to be waived only by specific reference should simplify the drafting of wills by better conforming with the testator's likely intent.


Explanation of Provision



The bill provides that the right of recovery with respect to QTIP is waived only to the extent that language in the decedent's will or revocable trust specifically so indicates (e.g., by a specific reference to QTIP, the QTIP trust, section 2044, or section 2207A). Thus, a general provision specifying that all taxes be paid by the estate is no longer sufficient to waive the right of recovery.

The bill also provides that the right of contribution for property over which the decedent retained enjoyment or the right to income is waived by a specific indication in the decedent's will or revocable trust, but specific reference to section 2207B is no longer required.


Effective Date



The provision applies to decedents dying after the date of enactment.


3. Transitional rule under section 2056A (sec. 1103 of the bill and sec. 2056A of the Code)




Present Law



A "marital deduction" generally is allowed for estate and gift tax purposes for the value of property passing to a spouse. The Technical and Miscellaneous Revenue Act of 1988 ("TAMRA") denied the marital deduction for property passing to an alien spouse outside a qualified domestic trust ("QDT"). An estate tax generally is imposed on corpus distributions from a QDT.

TAMRA defined a QDT as a trust that, among other things, required all trustees be U.S. citizens or domestic corporations. This provision was modified in the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Acts of 1989 and 1990 to require that at least one trustee be a U.S. citizen or domestic corporation and that no corpus distribution be made unless such trustee has the right to withhold any estate tax imposed on the distribution (the "withholding requirement").


Reasons for Change



Wills drafted under the TAMRA rules must be revised to conform with the withholding requirement, even though both the TAMRA rule and its successor ensure that a U.S. trustee is personally liable for the estate tax on a QDT. Reinstatement of the TAMRA rule for wills drafted in reliance upon it reduces the number of will revisions necessary to comply with statutory changes, thereby simplifying estate planning.


Explanation of Provision



Certain trusts created before the enactment of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 are treated as satisfying the withholding requirement if the governing instruments require that all trustees be U.S. citizens or domestic corporations.


Effective Date



The provision applies as if included in the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990.


4. Treatment for estate tax purposes of short-term obligations held by nonresident aliens (sec. 1104 of the bill and sec. 2105 of the Code)




Present Law



The United States imposes estate tax on assets of noncitizen nondomiciliaries that were situated in the United States at the time of the individual's death. Debt obligations of a U.S. person, the United States , a political subdivision of a State, or the District of Columbia are considered property located within the United States if held by a nonresident not a citizen of the United States (sec. 2014(c)).

Special rules apply to treat certain bank deposits and debt instruments the income from which qualifies for the bank deposit interest exemption and the portfolio interest exemption as property from without the United States despite the fact that such items are obligations of a U.S. person, the United States, a political subdivision of a State, or the District of Columbia (sec. 2105(b)). Income from such items is exempt from U.S. income tax in the hands of the nonresident recipient (secs. 871(h) and 871(i)(2)(A)). The effect of these special rules is to exclude these items from the U.S. gross estate of a nonresident not a citizen of the United States . However, because of an amendment to section 871(h) made by the Tax Reform Act of 1986, these special rules no longer cover obligations that generate short-term OID income despite the fact that such income is exempt from U.S. income tax in the hands of the nonresident recipient (sec. 871(g)(1)(B)(i)).


Reasons for Change



The Committee believes that the income and estate tax treatments of short-term OID obligations held by nonresident aliens should conform. A purpose of exempting short-term OID income derived by nonresident aliens from U.S. income tax is to enhance the ability of U.S. borrowers to raise funds from foreign lenders, and such purpose is hindered by the lack of a corresponding exemption for U.S. estate tax. Moreover, to the extent the interest from such an obligation is exempt from U.S. income tax, the inclusion of the instrument in the nonresident noncitizen's U.S. estate would be a trap for the unwary.


Explanation of Provision



The bill provides that any debt obligation, the income from which would be eligible for the exemption for short-term OID under section 871(g)(1)(B)(i) if such income were received by the decedent on the date of his death, is treated as property located outside of the United States in determining the U.S. estate tax liability of a nonresident not a U.S. citizen. No inference is intended with respect to the estate tax treatment of such obligations under present law.


Effective Date



The provision is effective for estates of decedents dying after the date of enactment.


5. Distributions during first 65 days of taxable year of estate (sec. 1105 of the bill and sec. 663(b) of the Code)




Present Law



In general, trusts and estates are treated as conduits for Federal income tax purposes; income received by a trust or estate that is distributed to a beneficiary in the trust or estate's taxable year "ending with or within" the taxable year of the beneficiary is taxable to the beneficiary in that year; income that is retained by the trust or estate is initially taxable to the trust or estate. In the case of distributions of previously accumulated income by trusts (but not estates), there may be additional tax under the so-called "throwback" rules if the beneficiary to whom the distributions were made has marginal rates higher than those of the trust. Under the "65-day rule," a trust may elect to treat distributions paid within 65 days after the close of its taxable year as paid on the last day of its taxable year. The 65-day rule is not applicable to estates.


Reasons for Change



In order to minimize the tax differences between estates and revocable trusts, the Committee believes that the 65-day rule should be allowed to estates as well as to trusts.


Explanation of Provision



The bill extends application of the 65-day rule to distributions by estates. Thus, an executor can elect to treat distributions paid within 65 days after the close of the estate's taxable year as having been paid on the last day of such taxable year.


Effective Date



The provision applies to taxable years beginning after the date of enactment.


6. Separate share rules available to estates (sec. 1106 of the bill and sec. 663(c) of the Code)




Present Law



Trusts with more than one beneficiary must use the "separate share" rule in order to provide different tax treatment of distributions to different beneficiaries to reflect the income earned by different shares of the trust's corpus.144 Treasury regulations provide that "[t]he application of the separate share rule . . . will generally depend upon whether distributions of the trust are to be made in substantially the same manner as if separate trusts had been created.... Separate share treatment will not be applied to a trust or portion of a trust subject to a power to distribute, apportion, or accumulate income or distribute corpus to or for the use of one or more beneficiaries within a group or class of beneficiaries, unless the payment of income, accumulated income, or corpus of a share of one beneficiary cannot affect the proportionate share of income, accumulated income, or corpus of any shares of the other beneficiaries, or unless substantially proper adjustment must thereafter be made under the governing instrument so that substantially separate and independent shares exist." (Treas. Reg. sec. 1.663(c)-3). The separate share rule presently does not apply to estates.


Reasons for Change



The Committee understands that estates typically do not have separate shares. Nonetheless, where separate shares do exist in an estate, the inapplicability of the separate share rule to estates may result in one beneficiary or class of beneficiaries being taxed on income payable to, or accruing to, a separate beneficiary or class of beneficiaries. Accordingly, the Committee believes that a more equitable taxation of an estate and its beneficiaries would be achieved with the application of the separate share rule to an estate where, under the provisions of the decedent's will or applicable local law, there are separate shares in the estate.


Explanation of Provision



The bill extends the application of the separate share rule to estates. There are separate shares in an estate when the governing instrument of the estate (e.g., the will and applicable local law) creates separate economic interests in one beneficiary or class of beneficiaries such that the economic interests of those beneficiaries (e.g., rights to income or gains from specified items of property) are not affected by economic interests accruing to another separate beneficiary or class of beneficiaries. For example, a separate share in an estate would exist where the decedent's will provides that all of the shares of a closely-held corporation are devised to one beneficiary and that any dividends paid to the estate by that corporation should be paid only to that beneficiary and any such dividends would not affect any other amounts which that beneficiary would receive under the will. As in the case of trusts, the application of the separate share rule is mandatory where separate shares exist.


Effective Date



The provision applies to decedents dying after the date of enactment.